It’s well known that many men who identify as straight by orientation (that would be 100-0’s, 90-10’s and 80-20’s, will nevertheless have sex with men on occasion or even more often than that.
It’s not that they are gay at all. They are basically straight and have minor to zero interest in gay sex, but for some reason a lot of men will just do it anyway. 31% of all men who are predominantly straight are nevertheless somewhere from 90-10 to 60-40 on the scale below (indicating some level of gay interest), so as long as there is some homosexual interest, it’s logical than some of these men would act on it.
However, it is quite stunning right there that 1/3 of all straight men have at least some homosexual interest. How many people are aware of facts like this? But what about the 100-0’s? Why would they do it with a man (and they do)? I don’t get it.
100-0: Maximum heterosexual, minimum homosexual
90-10: Maximum heterosexual, incidental homosexual
80-20: Maximum heterosexual, significant homosexual
70-30: Maximum heterosexual, strong homosexual
60-40: Maximum heterosexual, very strong strong homosexual
50-50: Maximum heterosexual, maximal homosexual
40-60: Maximum homosexual, very strong heterosexual
30-70: Maximum homosexual, strong heterosexual
20-80: Maximum homosexual, significant heterosexual
10-90: Maximum homosexual, incidental heterosexual
0-100: Maximum homosexual, minimal heterosexual
How do you all feel about this new science showing that 1/3 of all straight men have at least some gay interest? Does it seem frightening, stunning, shocking or unbelievable to the point where you question the data? Or do you tend to shrug your shoulders and like Freud, the Cultural Left, the hip community and most gay men, instead think that “everyone is a little bit bisexual?”
If you don’t know about Freud, his position that all humans were basically bisexual at their core but that in the course of development, they simply fixate on one object or another (males or females or maybe adults or children) and put all of their drive or libido in the direction of that newly denoted object. The other half of the bisexual drive then either falls away, is distorted and turned towards the preferred object, or simply repressed.
I am not sure if Freud was right about this and it’s never been proven one way or another, but it’s an interesting theory.